Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
• B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
• D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

3. The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?

• A. Apoptosis
• B. Contact inhibition
• C. Stable cells
• D. Labile cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?

• A. Age younger than 50 years
• B. History of colorectal polyps
• C. Family history of colorectal cancer
• D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.

5. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?

• A. AML
• B. CML
• C. MDS
• D. ALL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer where immature lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) proliferate uncontrollably in the bone marrow. This leads to a reduction in the production of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, causing symptoms such as fatigue, anemia, bleeding tendencies, and increased susceptibility to infection. In ALL, leukemic cell infiltration into other organs is common, which can manifest as severe headaches (due to central nervous system involvement), vomiting, and testicular pain (due to infiltration of leukemic cells into the testes). These are hallmark signs of ALL, especially in younger patients.

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