Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Administer aspirin
• C. Obtain IV access
• D. Check cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps to dilate the blood vessels, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle, providing immediate relief for chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Administering aspirin is also crucial in the early management of acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation. However, in terms of immediate symptom relief, nitroglycerin takes precedence over aspirin. Obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids but is not the priority over providing immediate relief for chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes is essential for diagnosing acute coronary syndrome but is not the immediate priority when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
• C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

3. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
• C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help alleviate the cramping by reducing the speed and pressure of the solution entering the colon. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in extreme cases but is not the initial step. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the cramping, making it less optimal than lowering the height of the solution container.

4. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Distended, board-like abdomen
• B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
• C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.

5. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

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