ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Administer aspirin
- C. Obtain IV access
- D. Check cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps to dilate the blood vessels, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle, providing immediate relief for chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Administering aspirin is also crucial in the early management of acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation. However, in terms of immediate symptom relief, nitroglycerin takes precedence over aspirin. Obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids but is not the priority over providing immediate relief for chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes is essential for diagnosing acute coronary syndrome but is not the immediate priority when a patient is experiencing chest pain.
2. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
- B. Numbness on one side of the body
- C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
- D. Associated with seizures and convulsions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.
3. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.
4. What should a healthcare professional monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and signs of infection
- D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?
- A. 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup
- B. 3 oz of lean cured ham
- C. 3 oz of chicken breast
- D. ½ cup of canned baked beans
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with hypertension, a low sodium diet is recommended to help control blood pressure. Among the food choices provided, the best option is 3 oz of chicken breast. Chicken breast is lean protein with lower sodium content compared to other choices. It is a healthier option for managing hypertension. Reconstituted dry onion soup (Choice A) and canned baked beans (Choice D) typically contain higher amounts of sodium, which can be detrimental for blood pressure management. Lean cured ham (Choice B) also tends to have a higher sodium content, making it less suitable for a client with hypertension.
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