a nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurses narcotics record what is the appropriate action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. A nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurse's narcotics record. What is the appropriate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action when a nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurse's narcotics record is to report the discrepancy to the pharmacy. Reporting such discrepancies is crucial to ensure accountability and patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse manager should not confront the nurse directly without proper investigation. Choice C is incorrect because reporting to the nurse manager may not address the issue effectively. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the discrepancy can compromise patient safety and violates protocols.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

3. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

4. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.

5. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a cough is crucial when taking lisinopril as it can be a sign of a serious side effect, such as angioedema or cough associated with ACE inhibitors. Option A is incorrect because lisinopril can be taken with or without food. Option C is incorrect as facial swelling is not an expected side effect of lisinopril. Option D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

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