Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurse's narcotics record. What is the appropriate action?

• A. Ask the nurse for clarification about the record.
• B. Report the discrepancy to the pharmacy.
• C. Report the issue to the nurse manager immediately.
• D. Ignore the discrepancy as a clerical error.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action when a nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurse's narcotics record is to report the discrepancy to the pharmacy. Reporting such discrepancies is crucial to ensure accountability and patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse manager should not confront the nurse directly without proper investigation. Choice C is incorrect because reporting to the nurse manager may not address the issue effectively. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the discrepancy can compromise patient safety and violates protocols.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

3. How can a healthcare provider prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?

• A. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
• B. Provide the patient with a special mattress.
• C. Elevate the patient's legs to reduce pressure.
• D. Limit the patient's movement to reduce friction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing the immobile patient with a special mattress is an effective way to prevent pressure ulcers. Special mattresses help distribute pressure evenly and reduce the risk of developing pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on sensitive areas. Turning the patient every 4 hours (Choice A) is a standard practice to prevent pressure ulcers but may not be as effective as using a special mattress. Elevating the patient's legs (Choice C) can help with circulation but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers. Limiting the patient's movement (Choice D) can lead to other complications and is not a recommended method for preventing pressure ulcers.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient on contact precautions. Which action will be most appropriate to prevent the spread of disease?

• A. Wear a gown, gloves, face mask, and goggles for interactions with the patient.
• B. Transport the patient safely and quickly when going to the radiology department.
• C. Place the patient in a room with negative airflow.
• D. Use a dedicated blood pressure cuff that stays in the room and is used for that patient only.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a dedicated blood pressure cuff that stays in the room and is used for that patient only. Patients on contact precautions require dedicated equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Using one blood pressure cuff exclusively for the patient on contact precautions helps minimize the risk of transmitting infections to other patients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while wearing protective gear and isolating the patient in a room with negative airflow are important infection control measures, using dedicated equipment for the patient on contact precautions is specifically recommended to prevent the spread of disease in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Ensure the client is on seizure precautions.
• B. Educate the client about seizure triggers.
• C. Monitor for signs of an impending seizure.
• D. Initiate IV access for anti-seizure medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.

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