ATI RN
ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B
1. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?
- A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
- B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
- C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
- D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.
2. A patient is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's immediate action?
- A. Assist the patient into a high Fowler's position.
- B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and cough.
- D. Assess the patient's lung sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula is the immediate action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. This intervention helps to improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress promptly. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice A) may also be beneficial but providing oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to address the underlying hypoxemia. Encouraging deep breaths and coughing (choice C) may not be appropriate as the first action, especially without assessing the patient first. Assessing lung sounds (choice D) is essential but should follow the initial intervention of administering oxygen.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the following lab results should be reviewed before administering the medication?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Calcium level
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium level. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can potentiate the effects of low potassium levels, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to review the patient's potassium level before administering digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because calcium level, hemoglobin level, and white blood cell count are not directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.
4. A client with renal calculi is admitted. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor urinary output every shift.
- B. Administer pain medication as ordered.
- C. Strain all urine for stones.
- D. Increase fluid intake to flush the urinary tract.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to strain all urine for stones. This is the priority nursing intervention for a client with renal calculi as it helps in identifying and preventing stones from passing unnoticed. Monitoring urinary output, administering pain medication, and increasing fluid intake are important aspects of care for this client, but the priority is to ensure that any passed stones are collected and analyzed to guide further treatment.
5. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?
- A. Position the patient in the supine position for long periods.
- B. Use pillows to support bony prominences.
- C. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- D. Place the patient on an alternating pressure mattress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.
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