Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
• B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
• C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

3. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Pain
• C. Nausea
• D. Gag reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. A client with a fever of 100°F
• C. A client scheduled for surgery
• D. A client with stable vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

5. A client is preparing for a surgical procedure but refuses to remove religious jewelry. What is the best course of action?

• A. Proceed with surgery and document the refusal.
• B. Ask the client for permission to secure the jewelry.
• C. Remove the jewelry and store it safely.
• D. Postpone the surgery until the jewelry is removed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best course of action is to ask the client for permission to secure the jewelry. This respects the client's religious beliefs while also ensuring that the jewelry does not interfere during the surgical procedure. Proceeding with surgery without addressing the presence of the jewelry can lead to complications or distress for the client. Removing the jewelry without consent or postponing the surgery solely due to the presence of religious jewelry are not appropriate actions in this situation.

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