ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel (AP)?
- A. Giving a glycerin suppository to a client for constipation
- B. Evaluating the effectiveness of ibuprofen administered to a client who reported a headache
- C. Discussing dietary changes with a client who has a prescription for a gluten-free diet
- D. Measuring hourly urinary output for a client who is postoperative
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring hourly urinary output is a task that falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. This task involves a technical skill that can be delegated by the charge nurse. Choices A, B, and C require higher-level nursing assessments and interventions that should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Giving a glycerin suppository involves medication administration, evaluating the effectiveness of ibuprofen requires assessment and critical thinking, and discussing dietary changes involves education and assessment of the client's understanding and compliance, all of which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.
2. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?
- A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
- B. Early detection of mental illness
- C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
- D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.
3. A nurse is teaching the partner of a client who had a stroke about manifestations of dysphagia. Which of the following statements by the client's partner indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I will monitor my husband for coughing while he is eating
- B. I will monitor my husband for pocketing food in his mouth
- C. I will monitor for a change in my husband's voice after he swallows
- D. I will monitor my husband for tilting his head forward when he swallows
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tilting the head forward during swallowing is not a compensatory technique for dysphagia and may increase the risk of aspiration. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements indicating appropriate monitoring for manifestations of dysphagia: coughing while eating, pocketing food in the mouth, and changes in voice after swallowing are all signs that should be monitored.
4. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
- B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
- C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
- D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.
5. When considering a bone marrow transplant for a client with leukemia, which ethical principle pertains to minimizing harm to the client?
- A. Justice
- B. Nonmaleficence
- C. Autonomy
- D. Beneficence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to do no harm, making it crucial in medical decision-making. In the context of a bone marrow transplant for a client with leukemia, the primary concern is to minimize harm and avoid causing any unnecessary suffering or adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Justice relates to fairness in resource allocation and treatment decisions, Autonomy involves respecting the patient's right to make decisions about their own care, and Beneficence refers to the obligation to act in the patient's best interest and promote their well-being, which may involve some level of risk or harm for overall benefit.
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