ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?
- A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
- B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
- C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
- D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the test.
- B. You should drink 8 oz of water 1 hour before the test.
- C. You should take an antacid before the test.
- D. You should drink a glass of milk 1 hour before the test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the glucose tolerance test to ensure accurate results. Choice A is the correct instruction for the client preparing for a glucose tolerance test. Drinking water, taking an antacid, or consuming milk before the test can interfere with the accuracy of the results. Water or any other substance might affect the concentration of glucose in the blood, leading to inaccurate test results. Antacids and milk can also interfere with the test outcome. Therefore, the client should follow the instruction to fast for 8 hours before the test.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.
- B. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion.
- C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- D. Clubbing of the fingers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.
4. When administering an incorrect dose of medication, which facts related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Time the medication was given
- B. The client's response to the medication
- C. The dose that was administered
- D. Reason for the error
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when administering an incorrect dose. This information is crucial for tracking the sequence of events leading to the error. Choice B, the client's response to the medication, is important for monitoring the client's condition post-administration but may not be directly linked to the incident report. Choice C, documenting the dose that was administered, is relevant but does not provide insights into the timing of events. Choice D, detailing the reason for the error, should be included in the incident report but may not need to be documented in the client's medical record.
5. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
- A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
- B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
- C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
- D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
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