ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
2. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT levels
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor INR levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 10 g/dL
- B. Platelets 300,000/mm³
- C. WBC count 12,000/mm³
- D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Take this medication with a calcium supplement.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption. Calcium supplements should also be avoided when taking levothyroxine as they can reduce its absorption.
5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Limit fluid intake
- B. Increase potassium intake
- C. Provide a high-protein diet
- D. Administer IV antibiotics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.
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