Nursing Elites

1. When a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations says, 'It's hard not to listen to the voices,' which question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand that the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a private place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore what you are hearing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the client who experiences auditory hallucinations and finds it hard not to listen to the voices is, 'What helps you ignore what you are hearing?' This question focuses on promoting coping strategies and therapeutic communication, encouraging the client to share what techniques or interventions have been effective for managing the auditory hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the client does not understand that the voices are not real, which may not be the case. Choice B delves into the reasons behind the voices, which may not be immediately helpful in managing the current situation. Choice C suggests a physical solution of going to a private place, which may not address the underlying issue of coping with the voices.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

• A. Bradypnea.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day.
• B. Increase the intake of refined grains in the client's diet.
• C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
• D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation times.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before scheduled defecation times is essential in a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. The suppository helps stimulate bowel movements and aids in establishing a regular bowel routine. Encouraging a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day (Choice A) might be beneficial for bowel function, but it is not specific to the bowel-training program. Increasing the intake of refined grains in the diet (Choice B) is not necessary and could potentially lead to constipation rather than improving bowel movements. Providing a cold drink prior to defecation (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the effectiveness of the bowel-training program compared to the use of a rectal suppository.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

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