Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

2. A client has a new prescription for Etravirine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication at the same time every day.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client is to take Etravirine at the same time every day. This ensures consistent blood levels and effectiveness of the medication. Consistent timing is essential to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and avoid missing doses. Choices A and B are incorrect because Etravirine should not necessarily be taken with or without food; it is more important to take it consistently. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to take Etravirine at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

3. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Administer the Clonidine as prescribed.
• B. Provide ice chips to the patient.
• C. Educate the patient on Clonidine's effects.
• D. Obtain baseline vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Verapamil
• C. Warfarin
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.

5. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

Similar Questions