Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Pain level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.

2. A client has a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Oral prednisone can lead to weight gain and fluid retention due to its sodium and water retention effects. Monitoring weight changes is crucial to identify and manage this adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because oral prednisone is not typically associated with nervousness, bradycardia, or constipation as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring weight gain in clients prescribed long-term oral prednisone therapy.

3. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?

• A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
• B. Morphine
• C. Aspirin (ASA)
• D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Expect to have increased urination.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. INR
• C. BUN
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

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