a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is prescribed metronidazole to treat an infection which of the following statements by the cli
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is receiving discharge teaching for Metronidazole prescribed for an infection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alcohol should be avoided while taking Metronidazole because it can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing severe nausea and vomiting. It is important for the client to understand this to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in treating the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Metronidazole with food is recommended to decrease gastrointestinal upset, and there is no specific need to increase or avoid dairy products while taking this medication.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Ipratropium, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When two inhaled medications are prescribed, waiting 5 minutes between medications allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This ensures that each medication can work properly without interference from the other, improving the client's respiratory condition.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. To prevent this, clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges, to replenish potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting calcium-rich foods or avoiding milk is not necessary with Furosemide, and increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables does not specifically address the potential potassium loss associated with this medication.

4. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.

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