Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Monitor heart rate daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

2. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

3. A patient is receiving spironolactone for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, can result in serious cardiac complications and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report any signs or symptoms of hyperkalemia to prevent potential adverse outcomes in the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia is the critical finding that the nurse should report in a patient receiving spironolactone.

4. A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient facility who has been taking Acarbose for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. WBC
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Platelet count
• D. Liver function test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Liver function test. Acarbose can cause liver toxicity when taken long-term. Monitoring liver function tests periodically is essential to assess for any potential liver damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Acarbose does not directly impact white blood cell count, serum potassium levels, or platelet count.

5. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

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