ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
2. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
3. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?
- A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
- B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
- C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
- D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.
5. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about delegation. Which task should the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
- A. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed.
- B. Assisting a client with ambulation post-surgery.
- C. Helping with medication administration.
- D. Delegating IV medication administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assisting a client with ambulation post-surgery is a task that can be appropriately delegated to assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of duties. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed and helping with medication administration involve assessments and critical thinking that are typically within the scope of licensed nursing staff, not AP. Delegating IV medication administration involves a higher level of skill and knowledge that should be performed by licensed nursing staff.
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