ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
2. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Check blood sugar levels
- C. Provide oral glucose
- D. Recheck blood sugar levels in 15 minutes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to recheck blood sugar levels in 15 minutes. This intervention is crucial to ensure that the hypoglycemia has been effectively corrected after the initial treatment. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in cases of severe dehydration but is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Checking blood sugar levels is important, but the primary intervention should focus on treating the low blood sugar levels first, which is done by providing oral glucose. However, the most critical step after providing initial treatment is to recheck blood sugar levels to confirm that they have improved to safe levels.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?
- A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
- B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
- C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
- D. pH level of 7.37
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Bounding peripheral pulses
- C. Weight loss
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with chronic heart failure, bounding peripheral pulses are a classic sign of fluid overload. This occurs due to increased volume in the arterial system, causing a forceful pulse. Increased urine output (Choice A) is often seen in clients with fluid volume deficit, not overload. Weight loss (Choice C) is also inconsistent with fluid overload as it suggests a fluid deficit. Decreased heart rate (Choice D) is more commonly associated with conditions like bradycardia, hypothyroidism, or the use of certain medications, but not specifically indicative of fluid overload in chronic heart failure.
5. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor intake and output
- D. Administer diuretics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in managing a patient with fluid overload in heart failure. Weight fluctuations can indicate fluid retention or loss, guiding healthcare professionals in adjusting treatment. While checking for edema (Choice B) and monitoring intake and output (Choice C) are important aspects of patient care, they are not as direct in assessing fluid overload as daily weight monitoring. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is a treatment option based on the assessment of fluid overload, making it a secondary intervention compared to monitoring weight.
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