Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to drink adequate fluids daily.
• B. Administer pain medication as needed.
• C. Instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a balanced diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.

2. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

3. A client with schizophrenia is beginning therapy with clozapine. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will need to have my blood work checked regularly while taking clozapine.
• B. I understand that clozapine may cause me to gain weight.
• C. I should report any signs of a fever while taking clozapine.
• D. I should discontinue clozapine once my symptoms improve.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should continue taking clozapine even if their symptoms improve. Abruptly discontinuing the medication can lead to relapse. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding clozapine therapy. Regular blood work monitoring is necessary due to potential side effects, weight gain is a common side effect of clozapine, and reporting signs of fever is important as it can indicate a serious side effect of clozapine.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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