ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to drink adequate fluids daily.
- B. Administer pain medication as needed.
- C. Instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a balanced diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.
2. A client is starting therapy with a statin medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase intake of dietary fiber.
- D. Take the medication in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice when taking statin medication. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice A) or in the morning (Choice D) is not specifically necessary for statins. While increasing dietary fiber intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for health, it is not a specific instruction related to taking statin medication.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.
4. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL.
- B. Platelets 250,000/mm³.
- C. Hct 40%.
- D. WBC 14,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
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