ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly."
- B. "I will keep my blood glucose level between 200 and 250 mg/dL."
- C. "I will take my insulin at the same time each day."
- D. "I will eat three large meals each day."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.
2. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a colon resection and a new colostomy. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods that are high in protein.
- B. Consume foods high in fiber and low in fat.
- C. Eat foods high in vitamin C to promote healing.
- D. Avoid all raw vegetables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume foods high in fiber and low in fat. Following a colon resection and a new colostomy, a high-fiber, low-fat diet is recommended to promote healing and reduce the risk of complications. Foods high in fiber help maintain bowel regularity and prevent constipation, which is crucial after this type of surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in protein, consuming foods high in vitamin C, or avoiding all raw vegetables are not the most appropriate dietary advice in this situation.
5. A patient refused a newly opened fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch
- B. Dispose of the patch in a sharps container
- C. Send the patch back to the pharmacy
- D. Document the refusal and remove the patch
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient refuses a newly opened fentanyl patch, the nurse should ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This action ensures accountability, proper protocol, and prevents any potential diversion or misuse of the medication. Disposing of the patch in a sharps container (Choice B) is not sufficient as it does not address the need for witness accountability. Sending the patch back to the pharmacy (Choice C) may not be appropriate without proper documentation and witness. Simply documenting the refusal and removing the patch (Choice D) may lack the necessary verification of proper disposal.
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