ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly."
- B. "I will keep my blood glucose level between 200 and 250 mg/dL."
- C. "I will take my insulin at the same time each day."
- D. "I will eat three large meals each day."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.
2. What is the appropriate nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute allergic reaction?
- A. Administer antihistamines
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute allergic reaction is to administer antihistamines. Antihistamines work by blocking the action of histamine, a chemical released during an allergic reaction, and can help relieve symptoms such as itching, swelling, and hives. Corticosteroids are used for severe allergic reactions not responding to antihistamines, as they have anti-inflammatory properties. Oxygen is administered in cases of respiratory distress, while bronchodilators are used for bronchospasms. However, the first-line intervention for an acute allergic reaction is antihistamines.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Platelet count
- C. INR
- D. WBC count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a meal.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- D. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
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