ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When starting therapy with doxorubicin, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of doxorubicin. Doxorubicin is known to suppress the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Monitoring and reporting early signs of infection, such as a sore throat, are essential to prevent complications. Hair loss and fatigue are common side effects of doxorubicin but do not typically indicate immediate concerns for infection. Red urine is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not a priority over potentially serious infections that can arise.
2. A client has a prescription for Erythromycin. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect your urine to turn dark yellow.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
- D. Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.' Erythromycin is known to cause Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, which can be severe. Instructing the client to report any persistent diarrhea to their healthcare provider promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Erythromycin with food is generally recommended to reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most critical instruction. Expecting urine to turn dark yellow is not a common side effect of Erythromycin. Taking Erythromycin with a full glass of milk is not necessary and may not be appropriate for all clients, especially those with lactose intolerance or dairy allergies.
3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.
4. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Neurotoxicity
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.
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