ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. When starting therapy with cisplatin, a client should report which of the following adverse effects as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report tinnitus because it can be an indication of ototoxicity, a potential adverse effect of cisplatin. Ototoxicity can manifest as tinnitus, hearing loss, or balance disturbances, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any changes in hearing such as tinnitus to prevent further damage.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum sodium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.
3. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased testosterone levels
- B. Increased libido
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.
4. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.
5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to avoid which of the following?
- A. Dairy products
- B. Alcohol
- C. Leafy green vegetables
- D. Grapefruit juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms like flushing, headache, nausea, and vomiting when alcohol is consumed while on metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole. Dairy products do not interfere with metronidazole absorption; leafy green vegetables are safe to consume as they do not affect metronidazole metabolism, and grapefruit juice is not contraindicated with metronidazole.
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