a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start therapy with cisplatin the nurse should instruct the client to report which of the followin
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. When starting therapy with cisplatin, a client should report which of the following adverse effects as instructed by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report tinnitus because it can be an indication of ototoxicity, a potential adverse effect of cisplatin. Ototoxicity can manifest as tinnitus, hearing loss, or balance disturbances, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any changes in hearing such as tinnitus to prevent further damage.

2. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

4. A client received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min, and blood pressure is 74/44 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, where the client's blood pressure is significantly lowered due to Verapamil administration, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil. It should be given slowly intravenously as it counteracts the vasodilation caused by Verapamil, helping to normalize blood pressure levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for low blood pressure. Potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate are not the appropriate choices to address hypotension caused by Verapamil.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

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