Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
• B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
• C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
• D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It is essential to alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication to ensure equal distribution and optimal absorption. This technique helps prevent irritation and congestion in one nostril and enhances the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed, applied topically, or taken as a liquid medication after meals. Therefore, instructing the client to alternate nostrils during inhalation is the most appropriate teaching for this medication.

2. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum lithium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

3. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Headaches
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Projectile vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.

4. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

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