a nurse is providing instruction to a client who has a new prescription for calcitonin salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It is essential to alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication to ensure equal distribution and optimal absorption. This technique helps prevent irritation and congestion in one nostril and enhances the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed, applied topically, or taken as a liquid medication after meals. Therefore, instructing the client to alternate nostrils during inhalation is the most appropriate teaching for this medication.

2. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, what is important to monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, monitoring mental status changes is crucial. Serotonin Antagonists can affect neurological function, potentially leading to alterations in mental status. It is essential to assess for any changes in behavior, mood, or cognition to ensure patient safety and prompt intervention if needed.

3. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.

4. A patient is being discharged with a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to monitor for leg cramps. Leg cramps can be a sign of hypokalemia, which is a potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. By monitoring for leg cramps, the patient can detect signs of low potassium levels and report them to the healthcare provider promptly. This proactive approach helps prevent complications associated with hypokalemia. The other options are incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime or with food is not specific to the medication's adverse effects. Monitoring for increased blood pressure is not typically a common adverse effect of this medication.

5. A client has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive perspiration. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of muscarinic receptors can lead to excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) due to increased cholinergic activity, affecting sweat glands. Dry mouth, hypertension, and fecal impaction are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications, hypertension can be a result of alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not a direct effect of muscarinic receptor activation.

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