a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed diltiazem which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

2. A client has a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is important for the client to be vigilant in monitoring and reporting these symptoms to healthcare providers to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication in the morning, increasing potassium-rich foods, or taking the medication with food are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of Hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Filgrastim, only one dose should be withdrawn from the vial, and the vial should then be discarded to prevent any contamination or errors in dosing. It is crucial not to shake the vial but gently invert it to mix the medication before withdrawing the appropriate dose. Refrigeration is not required for Filgrastim; it should be stored at room temperature until just before administration. Choice A is incorrect because Filgrastim is typically administered subcutaneously, not intravenously. Choice B is incorrect as the medication should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated, until administration. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the vial is not recommended for Filgrastim.

4. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include when teaching a client with OCD who has a new prescription for Paroxetine is that it can take several weeks before the client feels like the medication is helping. Paroxetine, like other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, it is important to inform the client about this delay in onset of action to manage their expectations and promote adherence to the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Paroxetine before bedtime is not necessary, it should be taken consistently at the same time each day; Paroxetine is usually taken regularly, not as needed; and while monitoring weight is important, it is not a specific instruction related to the onset of action for Paroxetine.

5. Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, commonly causes side effects like increased pulse, mydriasis (dilated pupils), and constipation due to its inhibitory effect on the parasympathetic nervous system. Diarrhea is not typically a side effect of Atropine, making it the correct answer.

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