Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?

• A. Metallic taste
• B. Nausea
• C. Ataxia
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.

2. What is the therapeutic use of Alprazolam?

• A. Preventing thrombus formation
• B. Relief of anxiety
• C. Decreasing the risk of stroke
• D. Increasing urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic use of Alprazolam is for the relief of anxiety. Alprazolam belongs to a class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which are commonly prescribed to manage anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It works by enhancing the effects of a natural chemical in the body (GABA) to produce a calming effect on the brain and nerves, thereby alleviating symptoms of anxiety.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is experiencing cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional monitor when giving this medication?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Muscle pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil is known to cause hypotension as one of its adverse effects due to its vasodilatory properties. Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare professional to monitor the client's blood pressure closely during and after administration to prevent complications such as severe hypotension. Hyperthermia, ototoxicity, and muscle pain are not commonly associated with verapamil administration, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• D. Decrease your intake of protein.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, there is a risk of potassium depletion due to the medication. Therefore, it is essential to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to help maintain adequate potassium levels in the body and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels. Choice B and D are incorrect as there is no specific need to increase dairy products or decrease protein intake with Prednisone. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients taking anticoagulants like warfarin.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

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