Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?

• A. Metallic taste
• B. Nausea
• C. Ataxia
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.

2. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

4. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.

5. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid direct sunlight.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Expect urine to turn orange.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ciprofloxacin is to avoid direct sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, increasing the risk of sunburn. Clients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and wear protective clothing, including hats and sunglasses when going outdoors to prevent skin damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ciprofloxacin with an antacid can reduce its absorption, so they should not be taken together. Increasing dairy product intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Ciprofloxacin. While Ciprofloxacin can discolor urine, turning it orange, this is not a critical side effect that requires specific instructions for the client.

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