ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. When teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Suicidal thoughts
- C. Photophobia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is taking Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can lead to an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. The nurse should emphasize to the parents the importance of monitoring the child for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal ideation. Prompt reporting of such symptoms can help prevent harm to the child. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority adverse effects associated with Desipramine. While constipation, photophobia, and dry mouth can occur as side effects of Desipramine, they are not as critical as the risk of suicidal thoughts, which requires immediate attention to ensure the safety of the child.
2. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide, being a diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by enhancing potassium excretion. Increasing consumption of potassium-rich foods like bananas or oranges can help prevent hypokalemia and maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is not a specific instruction related to hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding sun exposure is more relevant for photosensitive medications, not hydrochlorothiazide. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.
3. When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, what adverse effect should they monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyponatremia is a critical adverse effect associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. This medication is a diuretic that can lead to excessive loss of sodium and water from the body, potentially causing low sodium levels and resulting in hyponatremia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, headache, weakness, and muscle cramps, is essential to prevent serious complications. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are also not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.
4. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Levofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking Levofloxacin with dairy products. This is because calcium in dairy products can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Patients should be advised to take Levofloxacin either 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Levofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of Levofloxacin administration is not specified as at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods specifically for Levofloxacin administration.
5. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.
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