a nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about managing fluid intake which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about managing fluid intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You should restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day." Clients with heart failure should limit their fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choice A is incorrect because 2 liters of water per day may be excessive for someone with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as unlimited fluid intake is not suitable for individuals with heart failure. Choice D is also incorrect as 3 liters per day may be too much fluid for a client with heart failure.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.

3. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

4. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has asthma and is experiencing wheezing. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used to quickly relieve bronchospasm in clients with asthma who are experiencing wheezing. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for acute wheezing. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma management, not for immediate relief of wheezing. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and not typically used as the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbation.

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