Nursing Elites

1. When a client is comatose and has advance directives stating a desire to avoid life-sustaining measures, but the family wants these measures, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Arrange for an ethics committee meeting to address the family's concerns.
• B. Support the family's decision and initiate life-sustaining measures.
• C. Complete an incident report.
• D. Encourage the family to contact an attorney.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize the client's wishes as outlined in the advance directives. By arranging for an ethics committee meeting, the nurse can facilitate discussions between the family and healthcare team to ensure that the client's wishes are respected while addressing the concerns of the family. This approach promotes ethical decision-making and collaborative communication among all involved parties, ultimately aiming to provide the best possible care for the client while considering their autonomy and preferences.

2. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Administer antiviral medications
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

4. When is sterile technique used?

• A. During strict isolation procedures
• B. After terminal disinfection is performed
• C. For invasive procedures
• D. When protective isolation is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.

5. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

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