a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin iv for augmentation of labor the clients contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a n
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a nine-second duration, and the fetal heart rate is 170 to 180 beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing frequent contractions with a short duration and an elevated fetal heart rate, indicating potential fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications and restore normal fetal parameters. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion could exacerbate the situation, leading to more distress for the fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the current issue and could delay the improvement of fetal well-being.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Avoid foods that are high in fat." Clients with IBS should avoid foods high in fat as they can exacerbate symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. High-fiber foods, choice A, can sometimes worsen symptoms in individuals with IBS. Increasing intake of dairy products, choice C, may also worsen symptoms for some individuals with IBS, especially if they are lactose intolerant. Drinking carbonated beverages, choice D, can contribute to bloating and gas, making symptoms worse for individuals with IBS.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.

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