a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because prednisone is usually prescribed for long-term use. Stopping it abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is typically tapered off gradually to avoid adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take prednisone with a high-protein snack.

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