a nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.

2. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

4. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is teaching a newly hired nurse about the varicella roster. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Children with varicella are contagious until the vesicles crust over, which is important for preventing transmission. Choice B is incorrect as varicella and herpes zoster are caused by different viruses, so the varicella vaccine is given to prevent varicella, not herpes zoster. Choice C is incorrect because varicella is primarily spread through respiratory secretions, so airborne precautions are recommended, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as children with varicella are contagious even before the first vesicle eruption, not just 4 days before.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.

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