Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place a wedge under the client's affected leg.
• B. Keep the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle.
• C. Position the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated.
• D. Keep the client's leg abductor pillow in place while in bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.

2. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
• D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

3. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage staff to implement the principle of paternalism when a client is having difficulty making a choice
• B. Tell staff to explain procedures to clients before obtaining informed consent
• C. Instruct unit staff to share personal experiences to help clients make decisions
• D. Develop a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.

4. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
• B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
• C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
• D. Apply a moisture barrier ointment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

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