Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert the catheter 7.5 cm (3 in) into the urethra.
• B. Insert the catheter until urine flow is established.
• C. Cleanse the catheter with sterile water before insertion.
• D. Insert the catheter 5 cm (2 in) into the urethra.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to insert the catheter until urine flow is established. This helps ensure proper placement and reduces the risk of trauma. Choice A (7.5 cm) and Choice D (5 cm) provide specific measurements that may not be appropriate for all individuals as catheter insertion depth can vary. Choice C is incorrect as catheters should be cleansed with an appropriate solution such as sterile saline, not sterile water.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Headache.
• D. Urinary retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease. The client's adult child asks the nurse about becoming a living kidney donor for her father. Which of the following conditions in the child's medical history should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the procedure?

• A. Amputation.
• B. Osteoarthritis.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Primary glaucoma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a contraindication for kidney donation because it can negatively impact the donor's health in the long term. Hypertension poses risks during and after the donation procedure, such as affecting kidney function and potentially leading to complications for both the donor and the recipient. Amputation, osteoarthritis, and primary glaucoma are not direct contraindications for kidney donation and would not typically prevent someone from being a living kidney donor.

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