Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL.
• B. Platelets 250,000/mm³.
• C. Hct 40%.
• D. WBC 14,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Metoprolol
• C. Digoxin
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.

4. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

5. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

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