Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

3. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

5. A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving postural drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform the procedure after meals.
• B. Administer bronchodilators before the procedure.
• C. Hold hand flat to perform percussion.
• D. Perform the procedure twice a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a child with cystic fibrosis receiving postural drainage is to hold the hand flat to perform percussion. This technique allows for effective chest physiotherapy. Choice A is incorrect because postural drainage should be performed before meals to prevent vomiting during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically administered before postural drainage to help open up the airways. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of postural drainage may vary depending on the individual's condition, so performing it twice a day may not be appropriate for all patients.

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