Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will check my blood glucose levels only when I feel sick.
• B. I will inject insulin in the same spot each time.
• C. I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region.
• D. I will inject insulin only if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Blood glucose level
• C. Serum albumin level
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Dry skin.
• C. Increased thirst.
• D. Increased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.

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