a nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine which of the following statements by
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with schizophrenia is beginning therapy with clozapine. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should continue taking clozapine even if their symptoms improve. Abruptly discontinuing the medication can lead to relapse. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding clozapine therapy. Regular blood work monitoring is necessary due to potential side effects, weight gain is a common side effect of clozapine, and reporting signs of fever is important as it can indicate a serious side effect of clozapine.

2. What is the best way to assess a patient's respiratory function after surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check oxygen saturation. This is because checking oxygen saturation provides a direct measure of how well the patient is oxygenating post-surgery. It helps healthcare providers assess if the patient is receiving enough oxygen to meet their body's needs. Auscultating lung sounds (choice B) is important to assess respiratory function but may not provide an immediate indication of oxygenation status. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is relevant but does not directly assess oxygenation levels. Checking skin color (choice D) can provide some information about oxygenation, but it is not as precise or direct as measuring oxygen saturation.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

4. When collecting a sputum specimen from a client with tuberculosis, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up. Collecting sputum early in the morning provides the best sample for tuberculosis testing. Option B is incorrect because waiting a day can decrease the accuracy of the specimen. Option C is incorrect as it does not specify the optimal timing for specimen collection. Option D is incorrect as sterile gloves should be worn for infection control but do not specifically relate to the timing of specimen collection.

5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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