a nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught by a nurse about managing protein intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.' Clients with chronic kidney disease should restrict their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Option A is incorrect as increasing intake of high-protein foods can exacerbate the condition. Option C is incorrect as avoiding all protein sources is not advisable, as some proteins are essential for overall health. Option D is incorrect as increasing the intake of animal protein can put more strain on the kidneys due to the metabolites produced during protein breakdown.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Wearing loose clothing around the ICD is essential to avoid putting pressure on the device, which can interfere with its function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Soaking in a tub rather than showering is not relevant to ICD care. Stopping the use of a microwave oven is not necessary with an ICD. Holding a cellphone on the same side as the ICD is not recommended as it can potentially interfere with the device.

3. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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