ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught by a nurse about managing protein intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
- B. You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.
- C. You should avoid all protein sources to prevent further kidney damage.
- D. You should increase your intake of animal protein.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.' Clients with chronic kidney disease should restrict their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Option A is incorrect as increasing intake of high-protein foods can exacerbate the condition. Option C is incorrect as avoiding all protein sources is not advisable, as some proteins are essential for overall health. Option D is incorrect as increasing the intake of animal protein can put more strain on the kidneys due to the metabolites produced during protein breakdown.
2. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Increased heart rate.
- B. Weight loss.
- C. Hyperthermia.
- D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased heart rate is a common adverse effect of levothyroxine due to its role in boosting metabolism. Choice B, weight loss, is actually a therapeutic effect of levothyroxine as it helps in managing hypothyroidism by increasing the metabolic rate. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes (Choice D) are not associated with levothyroxine use.
3. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?
- A. This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds.
- B. This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming.
- C. The child usually has an aura prior to onset.
- D. This type of seizure has a gradual onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.
4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a patient experiencing chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation in patients with chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient may not address the underlying cause of the chest pain. Checking oxygen saturation is important but not the initial priority in this scenario. Surgery is not typically the first-line treatment for chest pain without further assessment and diagnostic procedures.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
- B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
- C. Scant urine output
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
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