Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. Carrots
• B. Whole grains
• C. Lean beef
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

4. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Provide humidified air

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.

5. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

Similar Questions