Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is calculating a client's expected date of delivery. The client's last menstrual period began on April 12. Using Nagele's rule, what date should the nurse determine to be the client's expected delivery date?

• A. January 19
• B. 325
• C. 105
• D. 112

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nagele's rule is a method used to calculate the expected delivery date by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. In this case, April 12 minus 3 months is January 12, plus 7 days gives January 19. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the application of Nagele's rule and are incorrect.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

4. A nurse is caring for a 1-day-old newborn who has jaundice and is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
• B. Keep the infant's head uncovered.
• C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
• D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent irritation during phototherapy, as exposure to light can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Feeding the infant glucose water is unnecessary and not indicated for jaundice treatment. Keeping the infant's head uncovered allows the light to reach the skin effectively. Applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and is not recommended.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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