Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell the client that their delusions are not real
• B. Encourage the client to explore the meaning behind their delusions
• C. Focus on the client's feelings rather than the delusions
• D. Challenge the client's delusions directly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions, it is essential to focus on the client's feelings rather than directly addressing or challenging the delusions. By focusing on the client's emotions, the nurse can build trust and rapport without reinforcing the delusions. Choice A is incorrect because directly telling the client that their delusions are not real may lead to confrontation or mistrust. Choice B is incorrect as encouraging exploration of the delusions may further validate them. Choice D is incorrect because challenging the client's delusions can escalate the situation and damage the therapeutic relationship.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

• A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
• B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
• C. BUN 20 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Bananas.
• B. Oatmeal.
• C. Brown rice.
• D. Whole milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole milk. Clients with cholecystitis should avoid high-fat foods, and whole milk contains high levels of fat. Bananas, oatmeal, and brown rice are generally considered safe for clients with cholecystitis as they are low in fat and easily digestible. Bananas are a good source of potassium, oatmeal is high in fiber, and brown rice provides complex carbohydrates. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to avoid whole milk but can recommend the other choices as part of a balanced diet for cholecystitis.

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