ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?
- A. Monitor the dressing site daily
- B. Check for redness and swelling
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Flush the central line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.
2. What should be monitored when administering opioids to a patient?
- A. Monitor blood pressure
- B. Monitor respiratory rate
- C. Monitor heart rate
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering opioids, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression, which is a serious side effect of opioid use. Monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to assess a patient's overall condition, but they are not the primary focus when administering opioids.
3. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
- B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 92/min.
- D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer a bronchodilator.
- D. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.
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