Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?

• A. Monitor the dressing site daily
• B. Check for redness and swelling
• C. Monitor for fever
• D. Flush the central line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.

2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
• B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
• C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

3. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Visual disturbances.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. While constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, tachycardia (Choice B) and hypertension (Choice D) are not characteristic manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances (Choice C).

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

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