ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.
2. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication.
- B. I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.
- D. I should limit my fluid intake while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
4. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
- B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
- C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
- D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
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