ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports cocaine use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypotension.
- B. Memory loss.
- C. Slurred speech.
- D. Elevated temperature.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated temperature. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can lead to increased body temperature. Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely as cocaine tends to elevate blood pressure. Memory loss (Choice B) and slurred speech (Choice C) are more commonly associated with depressant drugs rather than stimulant drugs like cocaine.
3. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- C. Check for pitting edema
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.
4. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
- B. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?
- A. Let's talk about how you can change your response to stress.
- B. We should establish our roles in the initial session.
- C. Let me show you simple relaxation exercises to manage stress.
- D. We should discuss resources to implement in your daily life.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.
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