a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for vasopressin to treat diabetes insipidus which of the following client statements indicates an
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.

2. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin to treat angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to apply the Nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time. This is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Rotating application sites is important as it helps maintain the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of skin reactions. Choice A is incorrect because Nitroglycerin is often used prophylactically to prevent angina episodes rather than just for acute chest pain. Choice B is not relevant to the administration or effectiveness of the medication. Choice D, while generally a good recommendation, is not directly related to the administration of Nitroglycerin.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

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