a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.

2. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

3. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify trough levels of a medication, the healthcare professional should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication. This timing ensures an accurate representation of the medication's lowest concentration in the bloodstream, which is crucial for therapeutic monitoring and dose adjustments. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 24 hours after taking the medication would not provide an accurate trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level, as it is the lowest concentration before the next dose.

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