a nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is receiving iv heparin for a deep vein thrombosis the client begins vomiting bloo after the heparin h
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

3. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.

4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

Similar Questions

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A client informs the nurse about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba?
A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
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