Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

2. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

3. When should a patient taking omeprazole be administered the medication?

• A. Before bedtime
• B. After dinner
• C. In the morning on an empty stomach
• D. With the patient's lunch meal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be administered in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. This timing is important as omeprazole works best when taken before a meal to inhibit acid production by the stomach. Taking it on an empty stomach in the morning allows the medication to be absorbed efficiently and provides optimal therapeutic effects throughout the day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole before bedtime, after dinner, or with lunch may not allow the medication to work effectively as it requires an empty stomach for better absorption and action.

4. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?

• A. Decrease symptoms of PTSD
• B. Resolution of signs of infection
• C. Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
• D. Prevention or relief of bronchospasm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.

5. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing down the heart rate. An adverse effect of atenolol is bradycardia, characterized by a slower than normal heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of bradycardia, such as a slow heart rate, while taking atenolol. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for bradycardia. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected adverse effect of atenolol as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is not a typical adverse effect of atenolol. Hypertension (Choice D) is not an adverse effect of atenolol, as atenolol is commonly used to manage hypertension.

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