Nursing Elites

1. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia when receiving leuprolide as it can cause decreased testosterone levels, leading to the development of gynecomastia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leuprolide actually decreases testosterone levels, which would not result in increased testosterone levels or libido. Leuprolide is not associated with hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in a client receiving this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

3. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

4. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a stool softener
• B. Decrease fluid intake following infusion
• C. Infuse Acyclovir over 1 hr
• D. Monitor for hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

5. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin should be advised to take which of the following actions?

• A. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin is to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that affects the gums. By maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing, the client can help minimize the risk of developing this side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications affected by grapefruit juice metabolism, taking medication on an empty stomach is not specifically indicated for Phenytoin, and increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects or administration of Phenytoin.

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