Nursing Elites

1. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia when receiving leuprolide as it can cause decreased testosterone levels, leading to the development of gynecomastia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leuprolide actually decreases testosterone levels, which would not result in increased testosterone levels or libido. Leuprolide is not associated with hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in a client receiving this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Labetalol. Abrupt discontinuation of beta-blockers like Labetalol can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is important for clients to taper off the medication under healthcare provider guidance to prevent potential complications.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving instructions about laxative use. The client should be advised to avoid which of the following laxatives?

• A. Sodium phosphate
• B. Psyllium
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Polyethylene glycol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with heart failure often have sodium restrictions. Sodium phosphate can lead to fluid retention due to sodium absorption, which is harmful for individuals with heart failure. Therefore, it should be avoided in this population to prevent exacerbating fluid overload. Psyllium, Bisacodyl, and Polyethylene glycol are safer options for individuals with heart failure as they do not pose the risk of exacerbating fluid overload through sodium retention.

4. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.

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