Nursing Elites

1. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia when receiving leuprolide as it can cause decreased testosterone levels, leading to the development of gynecomastia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leuprolide actually decreases testosterone levels, which would not result in increased testosterone levels or libido. Leuprolide is not associated with hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in a client receiving this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Plan to take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Expect increased swelling of the ankles.
• D. Fluid intake should be limited in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with food. Hydrochlorothiazide should be taken with or after meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with food can help reduce the chances of stomach discomfort or nausea. It is not necessary to take the medication at bedtime, expect increased swelling of the ankles, or limit fluid intake in the morning when taking Hydrochlorothiazide. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?

• A. Administer an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Check the client's allergy history.
• D. Assess the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. It is characterized by a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to detect neutropenia early. The nurse should also educate the client on recognizing signs of infection and promptly reporting them to the healthcare provider for timely intervention. Hypokalemia is a potential adverse effect of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of Captopril.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.

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