Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can reduce saliva production, leading to dry mouth. To alleviate this symptom, the client should be advised to increase fluid intake or use sugar-free gum or candy. Monitoring for dry mouth is important to prevent complications such as oral health issues. Drowsiness, weight gain, and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine but are less common compared to dry mouth. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for dry mouth as it's a more prevalent adverse effect associated with this medication.

2. When administering Lithium to a patient, what is a life-threatening side effect?

• A. Erythema
• B. Pancreatitis
• C. Seizures
• D. Headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with Lithium, a life-threatening side effect to watch out for is seizures. Lithium can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures. Seizures are serious and necessitate prompt medical intervention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is not a common life-threatening side effect of Lithium. Pancreatitis can be a side effect of Lithium, but it is not typically life-threatening. Headache is a common side effect of Lithium, but it is not considered life-threatening.

3. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.

4. A preschooler weighing 44 lb is to receive Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally every 12 hr. The available amoxicillin suspension is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 4 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 3 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: First, convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, calculate the required dosage per dose: (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. To determine the mL per dose, divide the required dosage by the concentration of the amoxicillin suspension: (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL. Choice B (5 mL) is incorrect because the correct calculation yields 4 mL. Choices C (6 mL) and D (3 mL) are also incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?

• A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
• B. Morphine
• C. Aspirin (ASA)
• D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.

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