ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. The client with angina is being discharged to home. The nurse is instructing the client on dietary changes. What should be included in this teaching?
- A. Decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake.
- B. There are no dietary restrictions for a person diagnosed with angina.
- C. Limit smoking and increase protein and sugar intake.
- D. Increase fruits, vegetables, and foods high in cholesterol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake. These dietary changes can help manage angina by reducing the workload on the heart and preventing further plaque buildup in the arteries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as dietary restrictions for angina typically involve reducing salt, fat, and alcohol intake, rather than increasing sugar or cholesterol intake.
2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Warfarin, which herbal supplement should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. St. John's wort
- B. Echinacea
- C. Garlic
- D. Ginseng
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is St. John's wort. St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of Warfarin by interacting with its metabolism, potentially leading to decreased anticoagulant effects. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid using St. John's wort while taking Warfarin to prevent adverse drug interactions. Echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are not the correct answers in this case. While these herbal supplements may also interact with Warfarin and affect its efficacy, St. John's wort has a well-known interaction with Warfarin that can significantly impact its anticoagulant effects. Educating the client about the specific interaction between St. John's wort and Warfarin is crucial to ensure patient safety and the medication's therapeutic benefit.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
4. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea. Neutropenia is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. It is essential to assess the client's white blood cell count regularly to detect neutropenia early and prevent complications such as infections.
5. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication with food to increase absorption.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at the same time every day.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can interact with Nevirapine and lead to potential adverse effects or decreased effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should be taken without food or on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is a general recommendation for most medications but not specifically for Nevirapine. Choice D is incorrect as Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach.
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