Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a common adverse effect of paclitaxel due to bone marrow suppression. Clients should be instructed to monitor for signs of infection and report any symptoms such as fever, chills, or sore throat immediately to their healthcare provider.

2. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?

• A. Block stimulation of beta1 receptors
• B. Alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine
• C. Block stimulation of beta2 receptors
• D. Both A and C are correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol exerts its pharmacological action by blocking stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By doing so, it leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as propranolol affects both types of beta receptors. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine.

3. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

5. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?

• A. Elevated lipid levels
• B. Nausea
• C. Increased blood flow to the brain
• D. Decreased respiratory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.

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