ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client has a prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to have increased energy levels.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood pressure regularly. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that helps lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to ensure it remains within the target range and to assess the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of taking Hydralazine is usually not specified as bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because increased energy levels are not an expected effect of Hydralazine. Choice D is incorrect because Hydralazine does not interact with potassium in the same way as other medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.
2. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, and spinach to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with certain medications, but it is not a specific concern with Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect as Prednisone can be taken with or without food. Choice D is also incorrect because there is no direct relationship between Prednisone and sodium-rich foods.
3. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The provider should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Coarse tremors
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor for this symptom as it indicates a potential overdose of the medication. Severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasms are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity but rather a symptom of hypertensive crisis. Constipation is not a typical sign of Lithium toxicity but could be seen in other conditions. Muscle spasms are not specific to Lithium toxicity but can occur due to various reasons.
5. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count.
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