Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
• B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
• C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
• D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Colesevelam is to take it with food and at least one glass of water. This helps to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect because Digoxin and Colesevelam should not be taken together. Option B is irrelevant to the administration of Colesevelam. Option C is unrelated to the specific instructions for taking Colesevelam.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Visual disturbances
• B. Dry cough
• C. Confusion
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, can be an early sign of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial to detect and prevent potential adverse effects of digoxin. Dry cough, confusion, and urinary retention are not commonly associated adverse effects of digoxin and are not typically monitored in relation to this medication.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.

4. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

• A. PT/INR
• B. Platelet count
• C. aPTT
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

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