a nurse in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle closure glaucom which of the following findi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.

2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.

4. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that should be taken before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it before meals allows the medication to inhibit the proton pumps in the stomach when they are most active, leading to better control of acid secretion. Choice B is incorrect because taking Omeprazole with food may reduce its effectiveness as food can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is more effective when taken before meals. Choice D is incorrect as Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can reduce its absorption.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

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