Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.

2. What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?

• A. Liver Failure
• B. Anaphylaxis
• C. Respiratory Depression
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Electrolyte levels
• D. Kidney function

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to an increased risk of lactic acidosis, a serious side effect. Therefore, it is important to monitor kidney function regularly while a client is on Metformin. Hemoglobin A1C is used to monitor long-term glucose control, but kidney function is the priority for monitoring Metformin therapy.

5. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

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