ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?
- A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- C. Severe pain around the eyes
- D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.
2. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin should be advised to take which of the following actions?
- A. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin is to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that affects the gums. By maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing, the client can help minimize the risk of developing this side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications affected by grapefruit juice metabolism, taking medication on an empty stomach is not specifically indicated for Phenytoin, and increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects or administration of Phenytoin.
3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?
- A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
- B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
- C. Blood pressure 134/72
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.
4. When reviewing a client's health record, a nurse notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The nurse should identify this as which type of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Standing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A routine prescription indicates medications to be administered on a regular schedule without a termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily falls under a routine prescription, meaning the nurse will administer this medication daily until the provider discontinues it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A 'single' prescription is for a one-time dose, 'stat' prescriptions are for immediate administration, and 'standing' prescriptions are pre-authorized for administration as needed within specified parameters.
5. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
- C. Expect to have increased urination.
- D. Take the medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.
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