Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.

2. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

3. When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, what adverse effect should they monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a critical adverse effect associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. This medication is a diuretic that can lead to excessive loss of sodium and water from the body, potentially causing low sodium levels and resulting in hyponatremia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, headache, weakness, and muscle cramps, is essential to prevent serious complications. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are also not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.

5. A client has been prescribed a new oral hypoglycemic agent for diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication with my evening snack.
• B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels before each meal.
• C. I will take this medication as soon as I wake up.
• D. I will follow my exercise plan as usual.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking an oral hypoglycemic agent with an evening snack may lead to hypoglycemia during the night. It is important to follow the prescribed timing for medication administration to maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. The medication is usually taken before meals to help control postprandial blood glucose levels effectively. Choice B is correct as monitoring blood sugar levels before each meal is a good practice. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication upon waking up may align with certain oral hypoglycemic agents' dosing schedules. Choice D is also correct as regular exercise is an important part of managing diabetes.

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