Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

2. A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. Beta Blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Beta Blockers do not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypernatremia as adverse effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at night to reduce nighttime stomach acid production, providing optimal relief for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and ulcers.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

• A. 1-year-old with no health problems
• B. 17-year-old with a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
• C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
• D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 17-year-old can be immunized for influenza with the LAIV via nasal spray. A hypersensitivity to penicillin is not a contraindication for an influenza immunization. Nasal spray influenza vaccine is generally recommended for healthy individuals between 2 and 49 years old. Choices A, C, and D are not candidates for nasal spray influenza vaccine. A 1-year-old is too young, pregnant individuals should not receive the nasal spray, and age is a factor for the use of the nasal spray vaccine.

5. A client is being educated about Fluticasone for treating Perennial Rhinitis. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
• B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
• C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
• D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! While the client may experience some benefits of Fluticasone within a few hours, the maximum effects may not be seen until up to 3 weeks of consistent use. This understanding is important to manage expectations and ensure the client uses the medication effectively for the treatment of Perennial Rhinitis.

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