a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed amlodipine which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

4. A client is taking Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports teeth grinding at night. Which interventions should the nurse implement to manage Bruxism? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interventions to manage Bruxism associated with Paroxetine use include A: Concurrent administration of buspirone. Buspirone can help alleviate the side effect of Bruxism. Additionally, C: Use of a mouth guard is recommended to prevent oral damage from teeth grinding. B: Administration of a different SSRI is not necessary since the issue is specific to Paroxetine. D: Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication may be considered in severe cases, but the initial step should be to add buspirone to address the Bruxism caused by Paroxetine.

5. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

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