ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client has a new prescription for Bisacodyl. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect rectal burning with the suppository form.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include when educating a client about Bisacodyl is to expect rectal burning with the suppository form. Bisacodyl, a stimulant laxative, is known to cause rectal burning when administered as a suppository. This side effect is common and expected, and it is important for the client to be aware of it to prevent unnecessary alarm or concern. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Bisacodyl before bedtime is not a common instruction; expecting a rapid heart rate is not a typical side effect of Bisacodyl; and increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not related to the use of Bisacodyl.
2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?
- A. Sarcomas
- B. Leukemias
- C. Ectopic pregnancy
- D. Rheumatic fever
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is more commonly managed with antibiotics to eradicate the underlying infection. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of conditions like sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its anti-inflammatory and anti-cancer properties.
3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure weekly.
- C. Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid using salt substitutes to prevent hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients prescribed with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, are at risk of developing a persistent cough as a common adverse effect. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs to evaluate the need for a medication change or adjustment.
4. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.
5. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
- B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
- C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access