Nursing Elites

1. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
• B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
• C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
• D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.

2. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?

• A. Antiplatelets
• B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Calcium channel blockers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.

3. A client with angina is being taught how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
• B. Rub the ointment directly into the skin until it is no longer visible.
• C. Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.
• D. Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the prior dose before applying a new one to prevent toxicity. Nitroglycerin ointment can cause adverse effects if accumulated doses are not removed. Rubbing the ointment until it's not visible or covering it with gauze may alter absorption. Applying it to the same area each time can lead to skin irritation or desensitization.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use an electric shaver to remove excess hair on the extremity.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Instruct the client to keep the extremity still during the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.

5. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.

Similar Questions