Nursing Elites

1. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's vital signs.
• B. Request a consult with a dietitian.
• C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
• D. Request an order for an antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

2. When starting therapy with cisplatin, a client should report which of the following adverse effects as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report tinnitus because it can be an indication of ototoxicity, a potential adverse effect of cisplatin. Ototoxicity can manifest as tinnitus, hearing loss, or balance disturbances, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any changes in hearing such as tinnitus to prevent further damage.

3. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.

5. A client is to receive Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
• B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
• C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. This is important to prevent aspiration until the client's normal pharyngeal sensation is restored, typically within about 1 hour after the procedure. Monitoring the insertion site for a hematoma, palpating the bladder, and maintaining the client on bed rest are not directly related to the administration of Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Therefore, these actions are not necessary in the immediate post-procedure care of a client receiving Tetracaine for a Bronchoscopy.

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